according-to-the-second-form-of-kant-s-categorical-imperative-would-it-be-morally-permissible-for-me-to-agree-to-be-someone-s-slave

According to the second form of Kant’s categorical imperative(Act in such a way that you treat humanity, whether in your own person or in the person of any other, never as a means to an end, but always at the same time as an end), would it be morally permissible for me to agree to be someone’s slave? Explain

1.5 – 2 page essay.